A) 1.13%
B) 1.50%
C) 1.88%
D) 2.34%
E) 2.58%
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) a cost should be assigned to reinvested earnings due to the opportunity cost principle, which refers to the fact that the firm's stockholders would themselves expect to earn a return on earnings that were distributed rather than retained and reinvested.
B) no cost should be assigned to reinvested earnings because the firm does not have to pay anything to raise them. they are generated as cash flows by operating assets that were raised in the past; hence, they are "free."
C) suppose a firm has been losing money and thus is not paying taxes, and this situation is expected to persist into the foreseeable future. in this case, the firm's before-tax and after-tax costs of debt for purposes of calculating the wacc will both be equal to the interest rate on the firm's currently outstanding debt, provided that debt was issued during the past 5 years.
D) if a firm has enough reinvested earnings to fund its capital budget for the coming year, then there is no need to estimate either a cost of equity or a wacc.
E) the component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 σ t) . this follows because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, and as such they can be deducted by the issuer for tax purposes.
Correct Answer
verified
True/False
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) 0.09%
B) 0.19%
C) 0.37%
D) 0.56%
E) 0.84%
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) 12.70%
B) 13.37%
C) 14.04%
D) 14.74%
E) 15.48%
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) 11.15%
B) 11.73%
C) 12.35%
D) 13.00%
E) 13.65%
Correct Answer
verified
True/False
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) the tax-adjusted cost of debt is always greater than the interest rate on debt, provided the company does in fact pay taxes.
B) if a company assigns the same cost of capital to all of its projects regardless of each project's risk, then the company is likely to reject some safe projects that it actually should accept and to accept some risky projects that it should reject.
C) because no flotation costs are required to obtain capital as reinvested earnings, the cost of reinvested earnings is generally lower than the after-tax cost of debt.
D) higher flotation costs tend to reduce the cost of equity capital.
E) since debt capital can cause a company to go bankrupt but equity capital cannot, debt is riskier than equity, and thus the after-tax cost of debt is always greater than the cost of equity.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) 12.60%
B) 13.10%
C) 13.63%
D) 14.17%
E) 14.74%
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) the after-tax cost of debt that should be used as the component cost when calculating the wacc is the average after-tax cost of all the firm's outstanding debt.
B) suppose some of a publicly-traded firm's stockholders are not diversified; they hold only the one firm's stock. in this case, the capm approach will result in an estimated cost of equity that is too low in the sense that if it is used in capital budgeting, projects will be accepted that will reduce the firm's intrinsic value.
C) the cost of equity is generally harder to measure than the cost of debt because there is no stated, contractual cost number on which to base the cost of equity.
D) the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is the most sophisticated and objective method for estimating a firm's cost of equity capital.
E) the cost of capital used to evaluate a project should be the cost of the specific type of financing used to fund that project, i.e., it is the after-tax cost of debt if debt is to be used to finance the project or the cost of equity if the project will be financed with equity.
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) the decision not to adjust for risk means, in effect, that it is favoring the data processing division. therefore, that division is likely to become a larger part of the consolidated company over time.
B) the decision not to adjust for risk means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing division and too few in the data processing division. this will lead to a reduction in the firm's intrinsic value over time.
C) the decision not to risk-adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the data processing business and too few projects in the manufacturing business. this will lead to a reduction in its intrinsic value over time.
D) the decision not to risk-adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing business and too few projects in the data processing business. this may affect the firm's capital structure but it will not affect its intrinsic value.
E) while the decision to use just one wacc will result in its accepting more projects in the manufacturing division and fewer projects in its data processing division than if it followed the consultant's recommendation, this should not affect the firm's intrinsic value.
Correct Answer
verified
True/False
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) 7.16%
B) 7.54%
C) 7.93%
D) 8.35%
E) 8.79%
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) project c, which is of above-average risk and has a return of 11%.
B) project a, which is of average risk and has a return of 9%.
C) none of the projects should be accepted.
D) all of the projects should be accepted.
E) project b, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%.
Correct Answer
verified
True/False
Correct Answer
verified
True/False
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) $1.49%
B) $1.66%
C) $1.84%
D) $2.03%
E) $2.23%
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) 10.85%
B) 11.19%
C) 11.53%
D) 11.88%
E) 12.24%
Correct Answer
verified
Multiple Choice
A) 10.77%
B) 11.33%
C) 11.90%
D) 12.50%
E) 13.12%
Correct Answer
verified
True/False
Correct Answer
verified
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